POLITY TEST – BEGINNER – Transform IAS Academy

POLITY TEST – BEGINNER

1. Which of the following can be considered a limitation on the sovereignty of the Indian Parliament? A. Judicial review B. Bicameral legislature C. Federal structure D. Parliamentary privileges

2. The concept of “Due Process of Law” is: A. Explicitly mentioned in the Indian Constitution B. Same as “Procedure Established by Law” C. Not applicable in India D. Interpreted by the Supreme Court under Article 21

3. Which of the following constitutional amendments inserted the words “Socialist” and “Secular” in the Preamble? A. 38th Amendment B. 42nd Amendment C. 44th Amendment D. 52nd Amendment

4. Which of the following provisions can be amended by a simple majority of Parliament? A. Representation of States in Rajya Sabha B. Election of the President C. Abolition of Legislative Councils in States D. Powers of the Supreme Court

5. Which of the following statements regarding the President’s ordinance-making power is incorrect? A. Ordinance can amend tax laws B. Ordinance is subject to judicial review C. Ordinance can be issued only when Parliament is not in session D. There is no limit to the number of times an ordinance can be re-promulgated

6. In which case did the Supreme Court uphold the “basic structure doctrine”? A. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras B. Golaknath v. State of Punjab C. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala D. Minerva Mills v. Union of India

7. Which Schedule of the Constitution contains provisions for administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram? A. Fifth Schedule B. Sixth Schedule C. Seventh Schedule D. Ninth Schedule

8. The expression “Procedure Established by Law” is borrowed from the Constitution of: A. UK B. USA C. Japan D. Australia

9. Which of the following bodies is a constitutional body? A. Finance Commission B. Planning Commission C. NITI Aayog D. National Human Rights Commission

10. Which Article empowers the Parliament to make laws on any subject of the State List during national emergency? A. Article 249 B. Article 250 C. Article 251 D. Article 252

11. The anti-defection law does not apply in which of the following cases? A. A member voluntarily gives up party membership B. A member votes against party direction C. A nominated member joins a political party within 6 months D. A member is expelled from the party

12. Which of the following is NOT a ground for disqualification of a Member of Parliament under the Tenth Schedule? A. Defection B. Holding office of profit C. Voluntarily giving up membership D. Voting against party whip

13. The residuary powers of legislation in India belong to: A. State Legislatures B. President C. Parliament D. Both Parliament and State Legislatures

14. In case of a conflict between the Central and State laws on a subject in the Concurrent List, which law prevails? A. State law B. Law passed later C. Central law D. The law approved by the President

15. Which of the following rights was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment Act? A. Right to Equality B. Right to Property C. Right to Constitutional Remedies D. Right to Life

16. The Constitutional status of the Panchayati Raj was accorded by the: A. 42nd Amendment B. 44th Amendment C. 73rd Amendment D. 74th Amendment

17. Who among the following can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India? A. Rajya Sabha only B. Lok Sabha only C. Either House of Parliament D. Supreme Court

18. The power of Judicial Review in India is based on: A. Article 21 B. Article 32 C. Article 13 and Article 136 D. Article 13 and Article 226

19. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not? A. President B. Speaker of Lok Sabha C. Finance Minister D. Chairman of Rajya Sabha

20. Which of the following articles deals with “Equal justice and free legal aid”? A. Article 14 B. Article 21 C. Article 39A D. Article 51A

21. Which of the following can be abolished by Parliament by a simple majority? A. Election Commission B. Finance Commission C. Legislative Council of a State D. High Court of a State

22. A resolution for the removal of the Vice-President of India: A. Must originate in the Lok Sabha B. Must originate in the Rajya Sabha C. Can originate in either House D. Requires the assent of the President

23. Which of the following features is borrowed from the US Constitution? A. Parliamentary government B. Directive Principles of State Policy C. Fundamental Duties D. Judicial review and independence of judiciary

24. The term "Money Bill" is defined in which Article of the Constitution? A. Article 109 B. Article 110 C. Article 112 D. Article 114

25. Which among the following Articles deals with the ‘Promotion of international peace and security’? A. Article 49 B. Article 50 C. Article 51 D. Article 52

26. The Inter-State Council was established under: A. Article 263 B. Article 280 C. Article 312 D. Article 356

27. The power of the President to grant pardon is described in: A. Article 72 B. Article 74 C. Article 75 D. Article 76

28. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court uphold that “Preamble is a part of the Constitution”? A. Golaknath Case B. Berubari Case C. Kesavananda Bharati Case D. Minerva Mills Case

29. Which of the following schedules deals with Anti-defection provisions? A. Ninth Schedule B. Tenth Schedule C. Eleventh Schedule D. Twelfth Schedule

30. In India, the residuary power of legislation rests with: A. States B. Parliament C. Both States and Centre D. President

31. Which Constitutional Amendment Act made Sikkim a full-fledged state of India? A. 35th Amendment B. 36th Amendment C. 37th Amendment D. 38th Amendment

32. Which Article gives the Parliament power to form new states and alter boundaries? A. Article 2 B. Article 3 C. Article 4 D. Article 5

33. Who can suspend the Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency? A. Prime Minister B. President by order C. Parliament by law D. Supreme Court through advisory opinion

34. Which of the following is not a qualification to become a High Court judge? A. Citizen of India B. Advocate of a High Court for 10 years C. Judicial officer in India for 10 years D. Minimum age of 40 years

35. The Speaker’s casting vote is exercised: A. At all times B. Only during a joint sitting C. In case of a tie on any vote D. During no-confidence motion only

36. Which Fundamental Right is available only to citizens and not to foreigners? A. Article 21 – Right to life B. Article 22 – Protection in arrest C. Article 19 – Freedom of speech D. Article 25 – Freedom of religion

37. Who decides the disqualification of a member under the anti-defection law? A. President B. Election Commission C. Speaker or Chairman D. Supreme Court

38. The 97th Constitutional Amendment deals with: A. Cooperative societies B. Anti-defection C. Reservation in promotions D. Free legal aid

39. The President's rule in a state can continue for a maximum period of: A. 6 months B. 1 year C. 2 years D. 3 years

40. Which Article provides for the impeachment of the President of India? A. Article 52 B. Article 61 C. Article 74 D. Article 76

41. Which of the following statements best describes the “Doctrine of Eclipse”? A. A fundamental right can eclipse a law B. A law inconsistent with fundamental rights is void from inception C. A pre-Constitutional law becomes dormant if it violates Fundamental Rights but is not dead D. Only Parliament can eclipse a constitutional provision

42. Which one of the following is NOT a discretionary power of the Governor? A. Reserving a bill for the President’s consideration B. Appointing Chief Minister when no party has clear majority C. Sending report to the President under Article 356 D. Dismissing the Council of Ministers

43. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that Fundamental Duties are enforceable through constitutional means? A. Kesavananda Bharati Case B. Minerva Mills Case C. R. Balaji v. State of Mysore D. R. Chitralekha v. State of Mysore

44. Which of the following is not required to be consulted by the President while appointing the Chief Justice of India? A. Prime Minister B. Law Minister C. Collegium of Judges D. None of the above

45. The difference between a Money Bill and a Financial Bill lies primarily in: A. The recommendation of the President B. The power of Rajya Sabha to amend it C. Origin in the Lok Sabha D. Whether it includes borrowing provisions

46. The principle of "Collective Responsibility" of the Council of Ministers is mentioned in: A. Article 72 B. Article 74 C. Article 75(3) D. Article 78

47. Which of the following is true regarding the election of the Vice-President of India? A. He is elected by both elected and nominated members of Parliament B. He is elected only by Lok Sabha C. He is elected by electoral college comprising both Parliament and State Legislatures D. He is nominated by the President

48. The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution by: A. 1st Amendment B. 24th Amendment C. 42nd Amendment D. 44th Amendment

49. Which of the following statements about the Speaker of Lok Sabha is correct? A. He must resign when ruling party changes B. He is not answerable to the House C. He can vote on all motions D. He continues in office until successor is elected, even if he ceases to be an MP

50. Which of the following is true about the Ordinance-making power of the Governor? A. Governor can issue an ordinance only with the President’s permission B. It is not subject to judicial review C. It has the same force and effect as an Act of State Legislature D. It cannot be used to amend any law

POLITY TEST – BEGINNER

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